Possible Duplicate: Prove 0! = 1 0! = 1 from first principles Why does 0! = 1 0! = 1? All I know of factorial is that x! x! is equal to the product of all the numbers that come before it. The product of 0 and …

Mar 28, 2022 · António Manuel Martins claims (@44:41 of his lecture "Fonseca on Signs") that the origin of what is now called the correspondence theory of truth, Veritas est adæquatio rei et …

In 1910, Srinivasa Ramanujan found several rapidly converging infinite series of $\\pi$, such as $$ \\frac{1}{\\pi} = \\frac{2\\sqrt{2}}{9801} \\sum^\\infty_{k=0 ...

What I would say is that you can multiply any non-zero number by infinity and get either infinity or negative infinity as long as it isn't used in any mathematical proof. Because multiplying by infinity is …

Oct 26, 2012 · What's the difference between Fourier transformations and Fourier Series? Are they the same, where a transformation is just used when its applied (i.e. not used in pure mathematics)?

Sep 11, 2015 · I know that limx→∞ f(x) = 0 lim x → ∞ f (x) = 0 and limx→∞ h(x) = ∞ lim x → ∞ h (x) = ∞ So at the and I have 0∞ 0 ∞. I know that infinity is not a real number but I am not sure if the limit is …

Sep 2, 2016 · And I understand that the partial derivatives gives the increase value in the directions of i and j versor respectively. But, why the gradient vector, compound of these two values gives the …

I have seen the use of this operation in calculations of viscous forces on a body within the computational fluid dynamics context. The meaning of the dot product of two vectors has been well explained …

Possible Duplicate: Proof the inequality n! ≥2n n! ≥ 2 n by induction Prove by induction that n!>2n n!> 2 n for all integers n ≥ 4 n ≥ 4. I know that I have to start from the basic step, which is to confirm the …

Aug 3, 2015 · Although there isn't much difference between Z,N,I Z, N, I, they are well-known, and each one gets its own distinguished symbol. Is there any reason that primes don't get their own special …